Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

Question 1

Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam. What is the purpose of universal precautions in healthcare settings?

• To reduce the use of gloves and other protective gear
• To minimize the risk of disease transmission from bodily fluids
• To protect patients from exposure to environmental hazards
• To ensure that only HIV and hepatitis patients receive special care

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Question 2

What does pathogenicity describe?

• The ability of a microorganism to cause disease
• The ability of a microorganism to spread from person to person
• The number of microorganisms required to cause an infection
• The severity of a disease caused by a microorganism

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Question 3

Which of the following correctly lists the five steps of the infection process in order? Portage Learning BIOL 27. Module 5 Exam

• Entry, attachment, invasion, evasion, exit and transmission
• Attachment, entry, invasion, evasion, exit and transmission
• Invasion, attachment, entry, evasion, exit and transmission
• Entry, invasion, attachment, evasion, exit and transmission Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

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Question 4

Which of the following is not a form of direct contact transmission?

• A person contracts an illness by sharing drinks with an infected friend
• A baby is infected with a pathogen from the mother before birth
• A person acquires a skin infection from contaminated soil
• A person gets an infection from touching an animal

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Question 5

Which of the following is an example of indirect contact transmission?

• A mother transmits an infection to her baby during childbirth
• A person gets infected after inhaling airborne droplets containing a virus
• A person acquires an illness by kissing someone who is sick
• A person contracts an infection by shaking hands with an infected individual

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Question 6

Portage Learning BIOL 27. Module 5 Exam. How do portals of entry differ from portals of exit in the infection process?

• Portals of entry involve transmission, while portals of exit are only used for pathogen replication
• Portals of entry are found only in airborne diseases, while portals of exit apply to all infections
• Portals of entry are used by pathogens to enter a host, while portals of exit are used to leave and spread to new hosts
• Portals of entry are related to immune defense, while portals of exit are used for treatment Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

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Question 7

Which situation requires the use of a barrier gown and face shield under standard precautions?

• Performing a procedure with a risk of body fluid splashes
• Changing bed linens in a non-infectious patient’s room
• Administering oral medication without contact with body fluids
• Touching a patient’s intact skin

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Question 8

Under contact precautions, medical equipment such as stethoscopes, blood pressure cuffs, and oximeters should be shared between patients as long as they are disinfected between uses.

• True
• False

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Question 9

Droplet precautions include wearing a procedural mask for both healthcare workers and patients when in close contact.

• True
• False

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Question 10

Healthcare workers should wear standard surgical masks instead of N95 respirators for airborne precautions.

• True
• False

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Question 11

Why should a researcher document motility when analyzing a microbial sample under a microscope?

• To determine the geographical origin of the microorganism
• To rule out the possibility of contamination
• To track the speed of microorganism movement
• To assist in identifying the microorganism’s physical characteristics

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Question 12

A microbiologist observes a distinct zone of clearing around colonies grown on blood agar. Which organism is most likely present?

• Streptococcus mutans
• Enterococcus faecalis
• Streptococcus pyogenes
• Streptococcus pneumoniae

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Question 13

What percentage of human streptococcal infections are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

• About 25%
• Less than 10%
• More than 90%
• Around 50%

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Question 14

What is the most serious consequence of rheumatic fever?

• Development of nodules beneath the skin
• Enlargement of cervical lymph nodes
• Damage to the heart valves
• Inflammation of the joints

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Question 15

A patient with septicemia typically presents with fever, chills, rapid breathing, and low blood pressure from the onset.

• True
• False

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Question 16

Under which condition is Staphylococcus most likely to shift from a harmless commensal to a pathogenic bacterium?

• Presence of bile salts
• High oxygen levels in the environment
• Lack of nutrient availability
• Compromised immunity in the host

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Question 17

Which statement about impetigo is TRUE? Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

• It is not contagious.
• It cannot be treated with antibiotics.
• It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• It can spread when ruptured sores contact other surfaces or people.

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Question 18

Conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, can only be caused by bacterial infections such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus.

• True
• False

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Question 19

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of an active Tuberculosis infection?

• A persistent cough lasting three weeks or more
• Sudden onset of high fever and joint pain
• A distinctive red rash on the torso
• Rapid weight gain and increased appetite

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Question 20

Which of the following findings would most likely lead a clinician to diagnose a patient with latent TB rather than active TB?

• A positive PPD skin test and a chest X-ray showing granuloma
• A negative PPD skin test and a chest X-ray showing active lung infiltrates Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam
• Symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, and persistent cough
• The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a sputum sample

Question 21

What organism causes leprosy (Hansen’s disease)?

• Mycobacterium leprae
• Streptococcus pyogenes
• Staphylococcus aureus
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 22

Which describes the bacterium that is responsible for causing botulism?

• Gram-positive bacillus
• Gram-negative bacillus
• Gram-negative spirillum
• Gram-positive cocci

Question 23

Which of the following best describes Clostridium tetani?

• Gram-negative, aerobic, rod-shaped bacterium
• Gram-positive, facultative coccus
• Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus
• Gram-negative, anaerobic spirochete

Question 24

Gas gangrene develops primarily under aerobic conditions, where Clostridium perfringens thrives best.

• True
• False

Question 25

Which infection has surpassed MRSA as the most common healthcare-acquired infection (HAI)?

• Escherichia coli
• Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Staphylococcus aureus
• Clostridioides difficile

Question 26

The most common initial site of Legionnaires’ infection is the gastrointestinal tract, leading to diarrhea and dehydration.

• True
• False Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

Question 27

Antibiotics such as streptomycin, tetracycline, and doxycycline are commonly used to treat plague infections.

• True
• False

Question 28

How can humans become infected with anthrax spores?

• Direct human-to-human contact
• Sexual transmission
• Drinking untreated river water
• Inhalation, ingestion, or entry through skin wounds

Question 29

Borrelia burgdorferi is a motile, multi-flagellated bacterium that requires a negative stain for visualization. Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

• True
• False

Question 30

A microbiologist is attempting to culture Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Which medium provides the best growth environment for this fastidious organism? Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

• Chocolate agar
• Blood agar
• MacConkey agar
• Mannitol salt agar

Question 31

A 28-year-old man presents with painful urination and urethritis. Lab testing confirms Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Which additional fact about this STI is true?

• It cannot be treated with antibiotics
• It can be cultured easily on standard agar plates
• It always causes obvious symptoms in men and women
• It can remain asymptomatic and lead to serious complications if untreated

Question 32

A 33-year-old patient presents with a single painless sore on the genitals. The lesion appeared about three weeks after unprotected sexual contact. Which stage of syphilis does this most likely represent?

• Latent
• Primary
• Secondary
• Tertiary

Question 33

A pregnant woman is counseled about her increased risk of yeast infections. Which of the following conditions is NOT a known risk factor for candidiasis? Portage Learning Microbiology. Module 5 Exam

• HIV/AIDS
• Diabetes
• Hypertension
• Antibiotic use

Question 34

A 25-year-old man presents with burning during urination and thick urethral discharge. Microscopy shows Gram-negative diplococci that grow best on chocolate agar. In a few sentences, identify the infection, describe how it spreads, and name the recommended treatment.

• Infection: Gonorrhea (caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae).
• Spread: It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that spreads through direct mucosal contact during vaginal, oral, or anal sex.
• Treatment: A single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone is the standard recommended treatment.

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Question 35

A 30-year-old man develops gas gangrene after a crush injury to his leg. The wound has tissue necrosis and a foul odor. In a few sentences, explain the organism responsible, its main feature, and the treatment.

• Organism: Clostridium perfringens.
• Main Feature: It is an anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium that produces alpha-toxin, leading to rapid myonecrosis (muscle death) and gas production (crepitus).
• Treatment: Requires immediate surgical debridement of necrotic tissue, high-dose antibiotics (Penicillin and Clindamycin), and sometimes hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

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Question 36

A 22-year-old college athlete develops a painful, red, swollen lesion on his leg that resembles a “spider bite.” The lesion is warm to the touch and filled with pus. He lives in a dormitory and shares athletic equipment with teammates. A wound culture reveals Gram-positive cocci in clusters. In a few sentences, identify the infection, the causative organism, and why this strain is particularly concerning.

• Infection: MRSA skin infection (Abscess/Furuncle).
• Causative Organism: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
• Concern: This strain is concerning because it is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics (like penicillin and methicillin) and often produces the PVL toxin, which causes severe tissue destruction.

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Question 37

A provider is testing a patient for gonorrhea. Which precautions should be used during specimen collection, and why?

• Precautions: Use Standard Precautions, including hand hygiene and PPE (gloves and potentially eye protection).
• Why: These protect the provider from exposure to mucosal pathogens and prevent contamination of the specimen. Additionally, the sample must be kept at room temperature because the organism is cold-sensitive.