Question 1
Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam. During a lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected for diagnostic purposes. The needle passes through the thin, meninge with hair -like extensions of tissue that contains CSF in the space beneath it. Which meningeal layer is this?
- Dura mater
- Arachnoid mater
- Pia mater
Question 2
Gyri are ridges on the surface of the brain that increase the brain’s surface area.
- True
- False
Question 3
Which of the following statements about delta waves is correct?
- They are only observed in individuals with brain injuries
- They are most common in adults during mental alertness
- They have the highest frequency of all brain waves
- They are commonly observed in infants and young children
- They disappear when a person falls asleep
Question 5
Match the structure with its function:
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- Coordinates skeletal muscle movements and balance: Cerebellum
- Connects cerebrum and cerebellum, aids in respiration: Pons
- Processes visual input: Occipital lobe
Question 6
Where is the gray matter of the cerebral cortex located?
- Deep within the cerebrum
- In the corpus callosum
- Surrounding the ventricles
- In the outer cortex
- Only in the basal nuclei
Question 13
The ____ of the spinal cord contains cerebrospinal fluid and is located within the gray commissure.
- Filum terminale
- Ventral median fissure
- Central canal
- Ventral horn
- Dorsal root ganglion
Question 14
True or false: Ascending tracts carry motor impulses from the brain to the periphery.
- True Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- False
Question 15
Which structure is responsible for balance and coordination in both sheep and human brains?
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- Pons
- Cerebellum
Question 18
Damage to which structure would cause loss of motor function?
- Dorsal rootlets
- Dorsal root ganglion
- Dorsal root
- Lateral root
- Ventral root
Question 19
A head injury has caused severe balance and coordination problems in a patient. They struggle with walking, maintaining posture, and coordinating fine motor activities. Which brain structure is likely damaged?
- Cerebellum
Question 20
True or false: The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes only spinal nerves, excluding cranial nerves.
- True
- False
Question 21
How does a neuron decide to generate an action potential?
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Unlock Free Mock Tests →- By accumulating graded potentials at the dendrites.
- By stabilizing its resting potential to prevent depolarization.
- By hyperpolarizing the axon.
- By reaching the threshold level at the axon hillock due to graded potential summation.
Question 22
What occurs when the inside of the cell becomes more positive compared to the resting membrane potential?
- Hyperpolarization
- Repolarization
- Depolarization
- Action potential
Question 24
Why do neurons require a large number of mitochondria?
- To power the sodium-potassium pumps essential for nerve impulses
- To synthesize neurotransmitters at the axon terminals
- To conduct nerve impulses along the axon
- To replace damaged neurons through mitosis
Question 25
True or false: The synaptic cleft is the gap where neurotransmitters pass between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
- True
- False
Question 26
Why can no additional action potential occur during the absolute refractory period?
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Unlock Free Mock Tests →- The axon is hyperpolarized and requires a stronger stimulus.
- Sodium channels are either already open or inactivated, preventing further depolarization.
- The relative refractory period has not started yet.
- The potassium channels are completely closed.
Question 27
Which of the following is true about pseudounipolar neurons?
- They have a single process branching into central and peripheral parts.
- They are found in the olfactory and visual systems.
- They are motor neurons with multiple dendrites. Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- They have three or more extensions from the cell body.
Question 28
True or false: Multipolar neurons typically function as sensory neurons in the PNS.
- True
- False
Question 29
Which of the following describes a difference between sensory and motor neurons?
- Sensory neuron cell bodies are located in the CNS, while motor neuron cell bodies are in the dorsal root ganglion.
- Sensory neurons carry information to the CNS, while motor neurons send signals from the CNS.
- Sensory neurons are multipolar, while motor neurons are pseudounipolar.
- Sensory neurons transmit efferent signals, while motor neurons transmit afferent signals.
Question 30
Which statement best explains why action potentials are self-propagating?
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Thousands of nursing students are already using ExamiraHub to practice real NCLEX, ATI TEAS, and HESI-style questions before their exams.
Unlock Free Mock Tests →- The membrane potential decreases uniformly across the axon.
- Depolarization in one segment triggers ion channel opening in the next.
- Myelin sheaths prevent ion channel opening along the axon.
- Each action potential varies in intensity based on the stimulus.
Question 31
What is the primary function of oligodendrocytes in the CNS? Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- Forming scar tissue after injury
- Providing myelination for axons
- Recycling neurotransmitters
- Phagocytosing dead cells
Question 32
Schwann cells primarily:
- Regulate the extracellular environment of neuron cell bodies
- Wrap around axons to form myelin sheaths
- Cover axons without gaps for continuous insulation
- Insulate the central nervous system axons
Question 33
True or False: Oligodendrocytes, like Schwann cells, guide axonal regeneration in the central nervous system.
- True
- False
Question 34
At what threshold membrane potential do voltage-gated sodium channels typically open during depolarization?
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- +30 mV
- 0 mV
- -60 mV
Question 35
What occurs during the repolarization phase of an action potential?
- Sodium channels inactivate; potassium channels open.
- Sodium channels open; potassium channels close.
- Both sodium and potassium channels close.
- The membrane remains at its threshold potential.
Question 36
Which of the following describes a characteristic of voltage-gated ion channels?
- They respond to specific neurotransmitter binding.
- They respond to changes in membrane potential.
- They are always open to allow continuous ion flow.
- They are only found on the cell body.
Question 37
What is the difference between spatial and temporal summation? Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- Spatial summation involves multiple neurons firing at different times, while temporal summation involves a single neuron firing once.
- Spatial summation involves multiple graded potentials arriving from different cells simultaneously, while temporal summation involves multiple graded potentials arriving from one cell in rapid succession.
- Spatial summation only involves inhibitory signals, while temporal summation only involves excitatory signals.
- There is no functional difference between the two.
Question 38
What role do calcium ions play in synaptic transmission?
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Unlock Free Mock Tests →- They bind to the postsynaptic receptors.
- Calcium ions trigger neurotransmitter release into the synapse.
- They increase the rate of action potential conduction along the axon.
- They inhibit the opening of voltage-gated channels.
Question 39
What determines whether a neurotransmitter’s effect is excitatory or inhibitory?
- The type of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic cell.
- The size of the synaptic cleft.
- The movement of ions and the change in membrane potential in the postsynaptic neuron.
- The distance between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
Question 40
Which of the following neurotransmitters is commonly released by the adrenal glands and is known for its role in the “fight-or-flight” response?
- Epinephrine
- Serotonin
- Dopamine
- GABA
Question 41
Which neurotransmitter is primarily released at the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle contraction?
- Dopamine
- Acetylcholine
- Serotonin
- Glutamate
Question 42
What is the effect of presynaptic inhibition on the postsynaptic neuron?
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Unlock Free Mock Tests →- An increased frequency of action potentials.
- Rapid depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
- Less neurotransmitter release and a decreased likelihood of a postsynaptic action potential.
- The facilitation of neurotransmitter reuptake.
Question 43
How does nitric oxide (NO) function as a neurotransmitter?
- By binding to specific G-protein coupled receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
- By diffusing across the membrane to activate intracellular enzymes
- By being stored in synaptic vesicles and released upon depolarization.
- By directly opening ligand-gated ion channels.
Question 44
What is the primary effect of excitatory neurotransmitters on the postsynaptic neuron?
- They cause depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron.
- They cause hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic neuron.
- They block the action potential from occurring.
- They increase the threshold required for firing.
Question 45
What is the primary function of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft?
- It promotes the synthesis of new acetylcholine molecules. Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- It removes neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft to terminate the signal.
- It binds to the postsynaptic receptor to trigger an action potential.
- It insulates the synapse to prevent signal degradation.
Question 45
What is the primary role of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
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Thousands of nursing students are already using ExamiraHub to practice real NCLEX, ATI TEAS, and HESI-style questions before their exams.
Unlock Free Mock Tests →- To allow pathogens to enter the CNS while blocking water-soluble particles.
- To remove waste products from cerebrospinal fluid.
- To facilitate the entry of fat-soluble substances like alcohol and nicotine into the CNS.
- To maintain a stable chemical environment for neurons by blocking most particles.
Question 46
What is the primary function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
- To maintain the ion balance in general body circulation.
- To transport oxygen to the brain and spinal cord.
- To regulate the permeability of the blood-brain barrier.
- To cushion the brain, provide buoyancy, and transport nutrients and waste.
Question 47
Which of the following structures regulates basic body functions such as hunger, thirst, and body temperature and controls the pituitary gland?
- Hypothalamus
- Cerebrum
- Epithalamus
- Thalamus
Question 48
Which of the following is a function of the medulla oblongata?
- Linking the cerebellum to the cerebrum
- Regulating heart rate and breathing rate
- Relaying sensory information to the cerebellum
- Controlling reflexes for sudden visual stimuli
Question 49
Which brain lobe allows for voluntary control of muscle actions and decision-making?
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- Temporal lobe
- Parietal lobe
Question 50
Which structure assists with the memory of smell?
- Hippocampus
- Mammillary bodies
- Cingulate gyrus
- Amygdala
Question 51
True or false: Memories are stored in one specific area of the brain rather than being distributed across the cerebral hemispheres.
- True
- False
Question 52
Wernicke’s area, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for:
- Memory retrieval
- Eye movement coordination
- Speech comprehension
- Speech production
Question 53
Which of the following statements about the basal ganglia is correct?
- The basal ganglia primarily have an excitatory effect on the cerebral cortex.
- The basal ganglia are composed of myelinated white matter.
- The basal ganglia are located in the brainstem.
- The basal ganglia regulate planning motor movements and motor learning.
Question 54
What role does the cerebellum play in maintaining posture?
- It makes automatic adjustments to muscle tone.
- It activates the flocculonodular lobe exclusively.
- It receives no sensory input from muscle spindles.
- It directly stimulates the cerebral cortex.
Question 55
The corpus callosum is an example of which type of fiber?
- Projection fibers
- Commissures
- Association fibers
- Reticular fibers
Question 56
Which structure runs from the conus medullaris to the coccyx to anchor the spinal cord?
- Posterior median sulcus
- Filum terminale
- Spinal dura mater
- Arachnoid mater
Question 57
Which of the following best describes a brain contusion?
- A TBI characterized by mild symptoms like headache and dizziness.
- Mild TBI with no permanent neurological damage.
- A condition caused by sudden, temporary cessation of brain activity.
- A type of TBI causing unconsciousness and significant tissue damage.
Question 58
Which of the following describes the result of spinal cord damage to the ventral root?
- Hypoesthesia and sensory signal loss
- Paralysis and inability of impulses to reach muscles
- Loss of reflexes and increased sensation
- Sensory overload from damaged dorsal roots
Question 59
Which of the following is true about a complete spinal cord injury?
- Both motor and sensory signals are completely lost below the injury site.
- It only affects motor function below the injury site.
- Sensory signals can still travel to the brain.
- Only the cervical region is susceptible to complete injury.
Question 60
What is the relationship between somatosensory receptors and the cerebral cortex?
- Sensory axons are positioned randomly, unrelated to receptor locations.
- The association area, not the primary somatosensory cortex, maps sensory receptors.
- Sensory receptors in the body are mapped topographically onto the primary somatosensory cortex.
- Sensory information skips the somatosensory cortex and goes directly to multimodal areas.
Question 61
Hypercalcemia, which decreases cell excitability, has what effect on the threshold voltage for cell depolarization?
- Lowers it
- Raises it
- No effect
Question 62
True or false: Hypercalcemia results in a decreased threshold voltage. Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam
- True
- False
Question 63
Explain what will happen to cellular excitability when the electrical gap between the threshold and resting membrane voltages widens, as observed in hypercalcemia.
- Cellular excitability decreases because a stronger stimulus is required to reach the threshold.
Question 64
Fill in the blanks: ________ receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, while ________ receptors involve a complex of proteins that lead to metabolic changes within the cell.
- Ionotropic; Metabotropic
Question 66
What methods do synapses use to eliminate neurotransmitters from the cleft?
- Reuptake, enzymatic degradation, and diffusion.
Question 67
How does integration help us interact with our surroundings?
- Integration processes sensory input, compares it with memory, and coordinates appropriate motor responses to help us navigate and interact with our environment.
Question 68
State whether the following statement is true or false. The sympathetic nervous system is involved in managing stress and preparing for physical exertion.
- True
- False
Question 69
How is the resting membrane potential maintained in a cell?
- It is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (active transport), ion leak channels (predominantly potassium), and the presence of negatively charged intracellular proteins.
Question 70
A caregiver for a patient with late-stage Alzheimer’s disease reports difficulty managing the patient’s inability to walk, speak, or swallow. 1. Explain the progression of Alzheimer’s disease and its impact on brain structures. 2. How do these structural changes correlate with the loss of motor and cognitive functions? 3. Discuss the emotional and logistical challenges faced by caregivers and suggest strategies for support.
- 1. Progression begins in the hippocampus/entorhinal cortex (memory) and spreads to the cortex (cognition/language) and eventually the brainstem (basic life functions). 2. These changes destroy synaptic connections and neurons; cognitive loss stems from cortical atrophy, while motor/swallowing loss results from damage to motor centers and the brainstem. 3. Caregivers face extreme emotional burden and logistical exhaustion; support strategies include respite care, support groups, and multidisciplinary professional assistance.
Question 71
What imaging technology would be used to determine the location of a brain injury following a CVA, and how does it work?
- CT scans (using X-rays to quickly identify bleeding or blockage) or MRIs (using magnets and radio waves for high-resolution images of tissue damage) are used.
Question 72
A patient is diagnosed with ALS and is experiencing difficulty swallowing and muscle atrophy. What specific part of the nervous system is damaged in ALS, and how does this lead to these symptoms?
- ALS involves the degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons. The loss of these neurons removes the signals to muscles, causing atrophy, and the loss of neurons controlling throat muscles leads to dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Portage Learning A&P Module 6 Exam