Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1

Question 6

Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1. The circulatory route that carries nutrients and toxins from the digestive tract to the liver is called:

• None are correct
• renal mesenteric system
• hepatic portal system
• hepatic artery

Question 7

Which cell type releases perforins and granzymes?

• helper T cells
• cytotoxic T cells (Note: Natural killer cells also use this mechanism, but cytotoxic T cells are the primary adaptive immune response answer.)
• phagocytes
• natural killer cells

Question 8

A small molecule that protects uninfected cells that neighbor an infected cell from viruses is called:

• compliment
• membrane attack complex
• interferon
• interleukins

Question 9

Which part of the immune system uses antibodies?

• cellular immunity
• innate external immunity
• humoral immunity
• innate internal immunity

Question 10

What hormone increases sodium reabsorption?

• atrial natriuretic peptide
• aldosterone
• parathyroid hormone
• antidiuretic hormone

Question 11

During internal (systemic) respiration, oxygen moves ____ the tissues and carbon dioxide moves ____ the tissues.

• out of; out of
• out of; into Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• into; out of
• into; into

Question 12

What is the ULTIMATE goal of angiotensin II?

• raise blood pressure
• cause formation of anti-diuretic hormone
• constrict blood vessels
• increase blood volume

Question 13

What hormone causes formation of red blood cells

• erythropoietin
• atrial natriuretic peptide
• renin
• thrombopoietin

Question 14

Children get one sex chromosome from each parent. What type of sex chromosome would a boy have received from his father?

• X
• XY
• Y
• XX

Question 15

Name the electrical event that leads directly to ventricular systole.

• T wave
• Ventricular repolarization
• Ventricluar contraction
• Ventricular depolarization

Question 16

What happens to the pressure in the thoracic cavity when the diaphragm contracts?

• it decreases
• it stays the same
• it increases
• it fluctuates

Question 17

Which of the following is an example of specific immunity?

• mucus
• phagocytosis
• inflammation
• B cell

Question 18

Which of the following is an example of active immunity?

• vaccination
• babies getting antibodies through breastmilk Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• receiving antibodies for a snake bite
• antibodies crossing the placenta

Question 19

Which of the following would NOT be found in the filtrate of a healthy individual?

• sodium
• glucose
• amino acids
• albumin

Question 20

Where does the MOST reabsorption occur?

• distal convoluted tubule
• nephron loop
• proximal convoluted tubule
• collecting duct

Question 21

The main function of the large intestine is:

• reabsorb water
• absorb nutrients
• produce enzymes
• chemical digestion

Question 22

Where is bile produced?

• gallbladder
• small intestine
• liver
• stomach

Question 23

Which of the following describes the function of the gallbladder?

• produces bile
• stores bile
• produces digestive enzymes
• absorbs nutrients

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

• produces bile
• detoxifies blood
• produces digestive enzymes
• stores glycogen

Question 25

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

• nephron
• neuron
• alveoli
• villi

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT a part of the nephron?

• nephron loop
• collecting duct
• proximal convoluted tubule
• distal convoluted tubule

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?

• maintain blood pressure
• digest nutrients
• maintain pH balance
• eliminate metabolic waste

Question 28

The actual site of gas exchange in the lungs is the:

• trachea
• bronchi
• alveoli
• bronchioles

Question 29

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as:

• carbaminohemoglobin
• bicarbonate ions
• dissolved gas
• carboxyhemoglobin

Question 30

Where does fertilization usually occur?

• uterus
• fallopian tube
• ovary Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• vagina

Question 31

What is the function of the epididymis?

• produce testosterone
• sperm maturation and storage
• produce sperm
• produce seminal fluid

Question 32

What is the hormone of pregnancy?

• estrogen
• progesterone
• luteinizing hormone
• follicle stimulating hormone

Question 34 (1 point)

Which is true regarding platelets?

• their role in blood clotting is to stimulate vascular spasms
• they are formed from fragments of megakaryocytes
• they are a solute in blood plasma Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• they are not a formed element

Question 35 (1 point)

Carbon dioxide is carried in the blood mostly in what form?

• attached to the globin group of hemoglobin
• dissolved in the plasma
• as bicarbonate ion
• attached to the heme group of hemoglobin Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.

Question 35 (1 point)

Carbon dioxide is carried in the blood mostly in what form?

• attached to the globin group of hemoglobin
• dissolved in the plasma
• ✅ as bicarbonate ion
• attached to the heme group of hemoglobin

Question 36 (1 point)

Direct stimulus for hematopoiesis is provided by:

• clotting factors in the blood, which are produced by the liver
• colony stimulating factor (CSFs), which are produced when platelet counts are low
• interleukin, which is released by the kidneys in response to low red blood cell count
• ✅ erythropoietin (EPO), which is produced when the kidney cells become hypoxic

Question 37 (1 point)

When someone becomes dehydrated:

• excess water int the ECF causes cells to swell
• ✅ water loss from the ECF causes cells to shrink
• water loss from the ECF causes cells to swell
• excess water in the ECF causes cells to shrink

Question 38 (1 point)

The regulation of potassium balance ______.

• includes secretion, but never reabsorption
• is accomplished mainly by hepatic mechanisms
• ✅ involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium
• is not linked to sodium balance

Question 39 (1 point)

A patient with severe epilepsy was given barbital, a drug that depressed the brain stem to prevent seizures. What effect could this drug have on blood pH?

• metabolic alkalosis
• metabolic acidosis
• ✅ respiratory acidosis Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• respiratory alkalosis

Question 40 (1 point)

Emphysema and congestive heart failure can lead to acidosis because

• carbon dioxide levels raise the pH
• sodium imbalances from heart failure can increase heart rate
• ✅ more carbon dioxide is retained, dropping the pH
• bicarbonate ion is retained by the kidneyes

Question 41 (1 point)

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

• fluid loss due to extensive hemorrhage would cause a decrease in heart rate
• excess red blood cell production would cause blood pressure to decrease
• ✅ increased cardiac output would cause an increase in blood pressure
• a decrease in peripheral resistance causes an increase in blood pressure

Question 42 (1 point)

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed across the luminal membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule via:

• osmosis
• movement along the paracellular route
• primary active transport
• ✅ cotransport with sodium ions Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.

Question 43 (1 point)

What is the role of the diaphragm while a person inspires air?

• relaxes, moving downward
• contracts, moving upward
• ✅ contracts, moving downward
• it plays a role in expiration only

Question 44 (1 point)

What factor shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to the right (or down), enhancing oxygen unloading at the tissue?

• decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide
• decreased temperature
• decreased BPG
• ✅ decreased pH

Question 45 (1 point)

Which is an INCORRECT tracing of a substance through the fluid compartments?

• oxygen moves from the lungs into the plasm
• water moves from the digestive tract into the plasma
• ✅ urea moves from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid
• carbon dioxide moves from the intracellular fluid inot the extracellular fuids

Question 46 (1 point)

What enzyme is secreted by the salivary glands?

• ✅ amylase
• lipase
• pepsin
• nuclease

Question 47 (1 point)

If one says that the renal clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?

• The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered from the blood
• The renal clearance value of glucose in healthy adults is normally much higher
• Most of the glucose is filtered and it not reabsorbed
• ✅ Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed

Question 48 (1 point)

In the intestinal crypts, which cells secrete chemicals that communicate with other organs?

• secretory cells
• paneth cells
• ✅ enteroendocrine cells
• intrepithelial lymphocytes

Question 49 (1 point)

Which of the following processes occurs in the esophagus?

• ingestion
• chemical digestion
• ✅ propulsion
• mechanical digestion

Question 50 (1 point)

The absolute refractory period for cardiac muscle cells is long, meaning that:

• the period of inexcitability is long so that tetanic contraction DO occur
• cardiac muscle cells have smooth and sustained contraction
• ✅ the period of inexcitability is long so that tetanic contractions DO NOT occur
• cardiac muscle cells are autorhythmic

Question 51 (1 point)

Which describes two parts of the cardiac cycle that happen during the P wave?

• ventricular repolarization, AV node fires
• atrial depolarization; SA node fires
• ✅ atrial depolarization, atrial contraction
• SA node fires, atrial repolarization

Question 52 (1 point)

CONTRACTION of cardiac muscle cells is caused by:

• an influx of potasstium ion
• ✅ an influx of calcium ion
• an efflux of sodium ion
• binding of iron atoms

Question 53 (1 point)

Which of the following is NOT true concerning lung surfactant?

• it is produced by type II alveolar cells
• ✅ it increases surface tension
• when absent in premature newborns, it leads to infant respiratory distress syndrome
• it decreases the attraction of water molecules to one another

Question 54 (1 point)

When atmospheric pressure exceeds intrapulmonary (intra-alveolar) pressure:

I) Air is exhaled II) intrapleural pressure is positive III) air moves across the pleural membranes

• ✅ none are true
• I, II, and III
• I only
• I and II only

Question 55

What mechanical event DIRECTLY follows the QRS wave?

• ventricular contraction
• ventricular relaxation
• none of these, as they are all electrical events
• atrial contraction

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Question 56

The main role of the counter-current multiplier of the Loop of Henle is to:

• establish a medullary osmotic gradient so that urine is always dilue
• establish a medullary osmotic gradient so that urine can be concentrated
• preserve the existing medullary osmotic gradient
• synthesize the hormone ADH so that urine can be concentrated

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Question 57

Proteins are broken down into what before they are absorbed by the small intestine?

• nucleic acids
• triglycerides
• monosaccharides
• amino acids

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Question 58

In a tissue at rest (partial pressure of oxygen = 40 mmHg), hemoglobin saturation is:

• 100%
• 98%
• 75%
• 40%

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Question 59

When water moves into a cell during osmosis it moves through a water permeable membrane from the ____ solution into the cell Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.

• water will not move through a water permeable membrane
• isotonic
• hypertonic
• hypotonic

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Question 60

Salim is generally a healthy individual. How might his body compensate when he experiences metabolic alkalosis?

• breath fast and deep
• excrete hydrogen ion
• reabsorb bicarbonate ion
• breath slow and shallow

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Question 61

Carbon dioxide binds with water in the presence of carbonic anhydrase to form ________, then dissociates into ________.

• hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion; carbonic acid
• this situation is impossible because carbon dioxide and water cannot bind to one another
• bicarbonate ion; hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion
• carbonic acid; hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion

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Question 62

The function of bile is to:

• emulsify fats
• absorb proteins
• digest fats
• activate pepsinogen

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Question 63

Kiran’s severe diarrhea has led to dehydration. The ECF osmotic pressure rises, causing:

• cells to loose water and shrink
• cells to loose water and swell
• cells to gain water and shrink
• cells to gain water and swell

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Question 64

Which statement is NOT true regarding normal bacterial flora of the gut?

• bacterial flora break down carbohydrates that your body could not break down otherwise
• bacterial flora synthesize B and K vitamins
• bacterial flora are always bad for the host
• most enteric (digestive) bacteria coexist peacefully with their host

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Question 65

Kiran’s body responds to the C-Diff infection with inflammation in the large intestine. Inflammation causes:

• reduction of pain
• vasoconstriction
• swelling
• cooling of local tissues

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Question 66

Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

• low estrogen levels result in a surge of leutenizing hormone release
• the leutenizing hormone surge stimulates meiosis I
• high estrogen levels inhibit GnRH
• high levels of leutenizing hormone in the blood lead to the development of primary follicles

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Question 67

Which answer choice correctly orders the movement of a sperm cell during ejaculation?

• epididymis, prostatic urethra, ductus deferens
• seminiferous tubule, ductus deferens, epididymis
• ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, seminiferous tubule
• prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, penile (spongy) urethra

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Question 68

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that: ________.

• in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
• oogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but spermatogenesis involves meiosis only
• none of these are true
• the mature ovum has n chromosomes, while the sperm has 2n chromosomes

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Question 69

The primary function of the uterus is to:

• produce the ovaries produce the ovaries
• regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles
• synthesize female hormones Inver Hills A&P. Final Exam 1.
• receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum

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Question 70

How can you tell the difference between a secondary follicle and a mature follicle?

• the mature follicle has ovulated the oocyte
• the mature follicle has an antrum
• the mature follicle always contains a secondary ooctye
• the mature follicle has two layers of cuboidal cells

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Question 71

Which of the following is NOT a result of the LH surge?

• primary oocyte becomes a secondary oocyte
• primary follicle becomes a secondary follicle
• meiosis I of a primary oocytes occurs
• ovulation

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Question 72

Select the TRUE statement about polar (basal) bodies.

• they are large cells with few mitochondria that become secondary oocytes
• they are cells containing 2n chromosomes that can be used to test for monochromatic disorders in female gametes
• they are cells containing very little cytoplasm that are produced during meiosis I or meiosis II
• they lead to the development of fraternal (dizygotic) twins

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Question 73

The structure(s) that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization are called the:

• mature follicles
• uterine (fallopian) tubes
• ovaries
• cervix