Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2

Question 1

Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2. What are the lymphoid nodules of the small intestine?

• lymph nodes
• tonsils
• Peyer’s patches
• spleen

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Question 2

According to Boyle’s law, as the volume of a container increases, its pressure:

• remains constant.
• increases.
• decreases.
• doubles.

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Question 3

The “buffy coat” in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of:

• platelets and leukocytes
• erythrocytes
• plasma
• albumin

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Question 4

Lymph traveling from the right foot will eventually be filtered by all of the following EXCEPT the:

• right leg
• left arm
• cisterna chyli
• thoracic duct

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Question 5

What is the primary function of the nasal cavity?

• The nose warms, humidifies, and filters inhaled air.
• to provide a site for gas exchange
• to produce hormones for respiration
• to house the vocal cords

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Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

• redness
• heat
• swelling
• cold Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2

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Question 7

If a person has a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml/beat, what is their cardiac output?

• 5250 ml
• 5.0 L
• 7000 ml
• 4500 ml

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Question 8

What type of cells present antigens to T cells?

• antigen-presenting cells
• erythrocytes Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2
• platelets
• plasma cells

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Question 9

Which cellular organelle is absent in mature red blood cells?

• ribosomes
• mitochondria
• nucleus
• cytoplasm

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Question 10

Which statement is true regarding MHC molecules?

• Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens.
• Class II MHC molecules are found on all nucleated cells.
• MHC molecules are types of antibodies.
• Only red blood cells have MHC molecules.

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Question 11

What are the soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells?

• antigens
• antibodies
• cytokines
• interleukins

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Question 12

Which leukocytes are the primary phagocytes in the blood?

• neutrophils and monocytes
• lymphocytes and basophils
• eosinophils and erythrocytes
• platelets and monocytes

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Question 13

What is the primary function of neutrophils? Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2

• Neutrophils destroy bacteria and other cellular debris.
• They produce antibodies.
• They transport oxygen.
• They release histamine.

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Question 14

Hemopoiesis is the process of:

• blood cell production.
• blood clotting.
• destroying red blood cells.
• transporting carbon dioxide.

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Question 15

Lymphatic capillaries are:

• extremely permeable
• completely impermeable
• the same as blood capillaries
• found only in the brain

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Question 16

What is the role of prothrombin activator? Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2

• to activate factor X into Xa
• to convert prothrombin to thrombin
• to dissolve a blood clot
• to produce fibrinogen

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Question 17

The percentage of total blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the:

• hematocrit
• hemoglobin count
• plasma ratio
• viscosity

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Question 18

Which cells produce surfactant in the lungs?

• type I alveolar cells
• type II alveolar cells
• alveolar macrophages
• goblet cells

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Question 19

Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBCs?

• ventilation-perfusion matching
• the Bohr effect
• the chloride shift
• Dalton’s law

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Question 20

How is most oxygen transported in the blood?

• as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2
• combined with hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin
• bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin
• as carbonic acid in the plasma

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Question 21

What would increase the amount of oxygen unloaded by hemoglobin into peripheral tissues?

• decreased temperature
• decreased pH
• decreased levels of PCO2​
• decreased levels of BPG (2,3-bisphosphoglycerate)

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Question 22

Which of the following confers passive immunity?

• viral infection
• breast milk
• vaccination
• bacterial infection

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Question 23

The process of red blood cell production is known as:

• erythropoiesis.
• erythrocytosis.
• erythropenia.
• polycythemia.

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Question 24

What are the components of prothrombin activator?

• factor Xa, factor Va, calcium ions
• factor Xa, factor Va, sodium ions
• calcium ions, factor IXa, factor VIIIa
• sodium ions, factor IXa, factor VIIIa

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Question 25

Carbon dioxide and water combine to form:

• carbaminohemoglobin.
• hydrochloric acid.
• carbonic acid.
• nitric acid.

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Question 26

What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC​) cells, perforates a target cell’s plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell’s DNA?

• interleukins Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2
• cytokines
• perforins
• interferons

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Question 27

Select the appropriate pathway for the steps of hemostasis.

• vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, clot retraction, thrombolysis
• vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, thrombolysis, clot retraction
• platelet plug formation, vascular spasms, coagulation, clot retraction, thrombolysis
• vascular spasms, coagulation, platelet plug formation, clot retraction, thrombolysis

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Question 28

The coupling of blood flow with the amount of air reaching the alveoli is known as:

• Boyle’s law.
• ventilation-perfusion matching.
• Henry’s law.
• partial pressure.

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Question 29

The triangular depression in the medial surface of each lung, where blood vessels and the primary bronchi enter, is the:

• hilum.
• base.
• lobule.
• apex.

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Question 30

Upon removal of the larynx, a person would no longer be able to:

• cough.
• produce sounds.
• swallow.
• sneeze.

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Question 31

What hormone is required to differentiate erythrocyte CFUs into proerythroblasts?

• erythropoietin
• aldosterone
• growth hormone
• thrombopoietin

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Question 32

Which blood type is compatible with B- during a transfusion?

• B+
• O+
• O-
• AB-

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Question 33

Type I, or immediate, hypersensitivity triggers plasma cells to secrete:

• IgE.
• IgD.
• IgM.
• IgA.

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Question 34

Neutrophils are most effective at:

• fighting a parasitic infection.
• antibody formation.
• fighting a bacterial infection.
• fighting a viral infection.

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Question 35

What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes?

• beta globulin
• gamma globulin
• albumin
• hemoglobin

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Question 36

What primarily determines airway resistance in the airways?

• elasticity of the lung tissues
• degree of alveolar surface tension
• diameter of the conducting zone passageways
• presence of surfactant

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Question 37

Lymph traveling from the right arm will be filtered by:

• axillary lymph nodes.
• mesenteric lymph nodes.
• inguinal lymph nodes.
• cervical lymph nodes.

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Question 38

The ABO blood group is based on which antigen(s)?

• antigen O Central Piedmont A&P. Unit Test 2
• antigen Rh
• antigen D
• antigens A and B

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Question 39

The volume that remains in the lungs after a forced expiration is the:

• functional residual capacity.
• vital capacity.
• residual volume.
• dead space volume.

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Question 40

Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?

• lymphocyte
• neutrophil
• monocyte
• eosinophil

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Question 41

An elevation in the number of __________ might indicate a parasitic infection.

• basophils
• monocytes
• neutrophils
• eosinophils

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Question 42

Approximately 20% of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood:

• dissolved in plasma.
• as carbaminohemoglobin.
• as carbonic acid.
• as the bicarbonate ion.

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Question 43

The clumping of cells that are cross-linked by their attachments to antibodies is known as:

• opsonization.
• precipitation.
• neutralization.
• agglutination.

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Question 44

Since it is a common passageway for both air and food, the laryngopharynx is lined with this type of tissue.

• pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
• nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
• simple cuboidal epithelium
• serous membrane

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Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a part of the adaptive immune response?

• B cell activation
• antibody production
• increased body temperature
• T cell recognition

Question 45

Respiratory alkalosis results from:

• hypercapnia.
• hypoventilation.
• hyperventilation.
• hypoxia.

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Question 46

When a person has an autoimmune disorder, antibodies are secreted that bind to:

• allergens.
• immunoglobulins.
• other antibodies.
• self antigens.

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Question 47

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

• tonsils
• throat
• thyroid gland
• thymus gland

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Question 48

Select the proper order of structures that the air would encounter during inspiration. (Not all structures in the pathway will be listed)

• larynx, trachea, alveoli, nasal cavity, bronchi
• alveoli, larynx, bronchi, trachea, nasal cavity
• nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchi, alveoli
• nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

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Question 49

Which of the following must occur first during hemostasis?

• thrombolysis
• clot retraction
• formation of thrombin
• formation of fibrin

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Question 50

Antigen recognition and binding is the responsibility of which portion of the antibody?

• heavy (H) chains
• variable (V) regions
• light (L) chains
• constant (C) region

Question 37

Based on the following Balance Sheet to answer the question. What is the current ratio?

• A. 0.75
• B. 0.9
• C. 6.5
• D. 0.84

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Question 39

Risk is defined as a potential event that results in an outcome that is different from what is planned

• True
• False

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