Question 1

Microbiology Exam. Opportunistic pathogens are ___________

  • Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances
  • Pathogens that cause disease in healthy individuals
  • Microbes that never cause disease
  • Microbes that only live in soil

Question 2

___________ lymphocytes work against virally infected cells by killing them.

  • Cytotoxic T
  • B
  • Helper T
  • Regulatory T

Question 3

Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes?

  • They both have a thick layer of keratin.
  • They are both constantly shedding and replacing cells.
  • They both have a low pH.
  • They are both covered in sebum.

Question 4

Plasma cells initially secrete IgM but through the process of ___________ they subsequently start secreting IgG.

  • class switching
  • neutralization
  • opsonization
  • agglutination

Question 5

Symptoms are

  • objective characteristics of a disease that can be measured.
  • subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.
  • the study of the cause of disease.
  • the signs observed by a physician.

Question 6

In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for CORONAVIRUS?

  • A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal by way of tears.
  • A pathogen crosses the placenta to infect the fetus.
  • A pathogen enters through a cut on the skin.
  • A pathogen is injected directly into the blood via a needle.

Question 7

With multiple layers of tightly packed cells and shedding of dead outermost cells that removes microorganisms the ___________ protects us from infections.

  • skin
  • mucous membrane
  • stomach
  • liver

Question 8

The womb, while fetus is developing inside it, is free of microorganisms in an environment termed

  • axenic
  • commensal
  • symbiotic
  • latent

Question 9

Zoonoses are

  • are diseases naturally spread from only zoo animals to humans
  • are diseases present in zoo animals
  • are diseases which affect noses of zoo animals
  • are diseases naturally spread from any animal nose to human
  • are diseases naturally spread from any animal host to humans

Question 10

Transient microbiota cannot persist in the human body because of the following reason

  • they are extremophiles
  • they are thermophiles and prefer higher temperatures
  • Competition from other microorganisms
  • they are halophiles and prefer salty conditions
  • immune cells are unable to detect them

Question 11

Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

  • mosquito transmission of Plasmodium
  • cockroach transmission of Shigella
  • louse transmission of Rickettsia
  • flea transmission of Yersinia
  • tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma

Question 12

Which of the following is a sign of disease?

  • headache
  • dizziness
  • cramps
  • nausea
  • fever

Question 13

A nosocomial disease is a disease acquired

  • by using a contaminated needle.
  • by eating contaminated food.
  • in a health care facility.
  • by having unprotected sexual intercourse.
  • by being bitten by an infected insect.

Question 14

Organisms that colonize the body’s surfaces without normally causing disease are called

  • gram positive bacteria
  • normal pathogens
  • normal microbiota
  • pathogens
  • colony-forming units (CFU)

Question 15

A reservoir is

  • a source of microbes for laboratory testing.
  • a condition in which organisms remain in the body for a short time.
  • a source of microbes.
  • an environment that is free of microbes.
  • any microorganism that causes disease.

Question 16

Entry via the __________, (due to punctures by nail, needle) circumvents the usual portals.

  • parenteral route
  • parental route
  • placenta
  • mucous membrane route
  • skin route

Question 17

Fomites are

  • silent carriers of infectious diseases.
  • fecal material from infected hosts.
  • inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.
  • animal sources for human pathogens.
  • insects that transmit pathogens from an infected host to a noninfected host.

Question 18

The most prevalent (highest numbers) type of antibody in the blood is

  • IgG.
  • IgM.
  • IgD.
  • IgE.
  • IgA.

Question 19

In the mucous membrane the Goblet cells make mucus while the ciliated cells __________

  • make sweat
  • make serum
  • remove particles
  • help the cells move.
  • make sebum

Question 20

Iatrogenic disease is a type of nosocomial infection and results from

  • transfer of germs from patient to visitors
  • contaminated food in hospital cafeteria
  • modern medical procedures or treatment regimens
  • transfer of germs from patient to medical staff
  • exogenous pathogen acquired from the health care environment

Question 21

All of the following are examples of direct contact transmission of disease EXCEPT __________.

  • kissing
  • scratching
  • sharing a drinking glass
  • handshake
  • hugging

Question 22

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

  • presence of Salmonella in the lumen of the colon
  • treatment of a cancer patient with radiation
  • growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine
  • growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth
  • growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin

Question 23

Antibodies are produced by

  • T cells
  • all lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
  • B cells
  • Neutrophils

Question 33

A membrane attack complex, creating holes in membranes of pathogens, is caused by

  • skin repairing
  • complement activation
  • interferon release
  • macrophage activation
  • B-cell activation

Question 34

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

  • neutrophils and dendritic cells.
  • macrophages and neutrophils.
  • NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.
  • macrophages and eosinophils.
  • B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

Question 35

Complement activation by antibodies occurs during the

  • antibody pathway
  • alternative pathway
  • both lectin and alternative pathway
  • classical pathway
  • lectin pathway

Question 36

Which of the following is the correct sequence of a phagocytic process

  • chemotaxis-adherence-ingestion-killing
  • adherence-ingestion-killing-chemotaxis
  • ingestion-chemotaxis-adherence-killing
  • killing-chemotaxis-adherence-ingestion
  • chemotaxis-ingestion-killing-adherence

Question 24

Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in the

  • the bone marrow.
  • the thymus.
  • the epidermis.
  • lymph nodes.

Question 25

Basophils function to release histamine during inflammation, whereas eosinophils and neutrophils phagocytize pathogens. They exit capillaries by squeezing between the cells in a process called

  • diapedesis.
  • a syndrome.
  • extravasation.
  • chemotaxis.
  • a sign.

Question 26

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as

  • commensalism.
  • mutualism.
  • parasitism.
  • antagonism.

Question 27

White blood cells with kidney-bean shaped nucleus are

  • lymphocytes.
  • monocytes.
  • basophils.
  • eosinophils.
  • neutrophils.

Question 28

First line of defense may be described as

  • the release of chemical factors by a leukocyte.
  • the lysis of a cell by a complement.
  • intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth.
  • the secretion of a leukocyte.

Question 29

The process known as ______ brings a variety of physical, chemical and cells together to fight invading microorganisms.

  • complement
  • inflammation
  • a syndrome
  • a sign
  • a reservoir

Question 30

One of the major functions of the ______ is to screen the tissues of the body for foreign antigens.

  • lymphatic system
  • integumentary system
  • circulatory system
  • digestive system

Question 31

Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

  • innate immunity.
  • adaptive immunity.
  • both innate and adaptive immunity.
  • neither innate nor adaptive immunity.

Question 32

Cell-mediated adaptive immunity involves

  • B cells.
  • T cells.
  • both B and T cells.
  • neither B nor T cells.

Question 37

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

  • T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.
  • Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses.
  • B cells prevent autoreactive T cell activation.
  • T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.

Question 38

The lacrimal apparatus produces and drains __________

  • blood
  • sweat
  • lymph
  • sebum
  • tears

Question 39

Which of the following cells increase in number during a parasitic worm infection?

  • macrophages
  • lymphocytes
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
  • neutrophils

Question 40

Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains

  • salt and lysozyme
  • salt
  • complement
  • lysozyme and complement
  • lysozyme

Question 41

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

  • the lack of suitable environment in the body.
  • the presence of phagocytes in the tissues.
  • both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.
  • the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment.
  • the presence of lymphocytes.

Question 42

__________ facilitate interaction between pathogens and material in lymph with immune cells.

  • Lymph nodes
  • Bone marrow
  • Skin
  • Tears
  • Mucous membranes

Question 43

Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature

  • increases the effectiveness of body defenses including interferons.
  • results in virus being shed in sweat.
  • increases vasodilation, bringing more leukocytes to the site of infection.
  • prevents viral infection of fibroblasts.
  • denatures viral proteins.

Question 44

The __________ regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites.

  • variable
  • constant
  • stem
  • invariable
  • hinge

Question 45

T-dependent endogenous antigens are processed by virally infected cells and displayed on their cytoplasmic membranes along

  • MHC II
  • MHC III
  • bacterial epitopes
  • auto antigens
  • MHC I

Question 46

__________ interact with and regulate B cells and cytotoxic T cells to create memory cells.

  • Helper B lymphocyte
  • B lymphocyte
  • Helper T lymphocyte
  • MHC II
  • MHC I

Question 47

Opsonization is

  • phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs.
  • damage resulting in cell lysis.
  • the coating of a pathogen by antibodies to facilitate phagocytosis.
  • nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
  • the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection.

Question 48

TLRs (Toll-like-Receptors) are

  • phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs.
  • cytosolic proteins that bind PAMPs
  • present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.
  • the coatings of pathogens by complement.
  • nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

NOD proteins Question

NOD proteins are

  • phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs.
  • present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.
  • cytosolic proteins that bind PAMPs
  • nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
  • the coatings of pathogens by complement.

Question 50

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

  • T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus.
  • T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC.
  • There are three types of T lymphocytes.
  • T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response.
  • T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules.

Question 51

______ are secreted only by virus-infected cells and produce an anti-viral state in surrounding cells.

  • Interferons
  • Antibodies
  • Complement.
  • PAMP
  • TLR

Question 52

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

  • lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
  • appendix.
  • lymph nodes of the groin.
  • lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).
  • spleen.

Question 53

Of the following ______ originate in bone marrow but mature in thymus

  • monocytes
  • macrophages
  • eosinophils
  • T lymphocytes
  • B lymphocytes

Question 54

Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?

  • illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline
  • prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline
  • incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline
  • convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline
  • incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

Question 55

Antigens are recognized by three-dimensional regions called ______ on antigens

  • variable regions
  • Y shapes
  • shapes
  • antibodies
  • epitopes

Question 56

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

  • growth factors
  • chemokines
  • tumor necrosis factors
  • interleukins
  • interferons

Question 57

Exposure to antigens in vaccine represents the following type of acquired immunity.

  • Artificially acquired natural immunity
  • Artificially acquired active immunity
  • Naturally acquired passive immunity
  • Naturally acquired active immunity
  • Artificially acquired passive immunity

Question 58

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

  • The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.
  • The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
  • The child has neither influenza nor RSV.
  • The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
  • The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.

Question 59

Antigen-binding sites are complementary to epitopes and most of the functionality of the antibody is mediated by

  • hinge region
  • Fab or arm region
  • disulfide region
  • the antigen
  • Fc region or stem region

Question 60

In the figure above, the dots represent occurrence of a disease and situation ______ fits the profile of a COVID-19 pandemic.

  • B
  • A
  • C
  • D

Question 61

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated above isImage of the structure of Immunoglobulin M

Shutterstock

  • IgM
  • IgD
  • IgG
  • IgE

Question 62

In the figure above, the white blood cell along with the red blood cells is a ______

  • basophil
  • eosinophil
  • monocyte
  • macrophage
  • lymphocyte

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