Question 3 of 50

Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1. What is a primary consideration when administering transdermal medication?

  • Apply directly to the cornea.
  • Coordinate inhalation with device activation.
  • Rotate the application site with each new patch.
  • Ensure the client refrains from eating for 30 minutes.

Question 4 of 50

What is the significance of assessing a client 30 minutes after medication administration?

  • To evaluate the onset of any adverse effects.
  • To ensure the medication has reached its peak effect.
  • To confirm the medication has been administered correctly.
  • To determine if the medication has been metabolized.

Question 5 of 50

Which of the following is a key nursing consideration when administering naloxone to a client who has overdosed on opioids?

  • Only administer naloxone if the client has a history of opioid dependency.
  • Ensure naloxone is only available in the pharmacy and not in the client’s room.
  • Administer naloxone immediately after the client exhibits signs of opioid overdose.
  • Wait for a physician’s order before administering naloxone in case of an emergency.

Question 6 of 50

Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made to a patient taking captopril to minimize the risk of hyperkalemia?

  • Increase consumption of bananas and oranges.
  • Increase intake of processed foods for sodium levels.
  • Consume more dairy products to increase calcium intake.
  • Limit intake of potassium-rich foods such as salt substitutes.

Question 7 of 50

What is the maximum daily dosage of acetaminophen for adults to prevent liver damage?

  • 3,000 mg
  • 2,500 mg
  • 5,000 mg
  • 4,000 mg

Question 8 of 50

A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed prednisone. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

  • Tachypnea
  • Hypotension
  • Decreased blood glucose levels
  • Increased appetite and weight gain

Question 9 of 50

Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of nitroglycerin?

  • Management of fibromyalgia
  • Long-term control of asthma
  • Treatment of HIV unresponsive to other antiretrovirals
  • Relief of angina pectoris

Question 10 of 50

What is a critical nursing intervention for a client experiencing bradypnea due to opioid toxicity?

  • Administering naloxone
  • Performing chest physiotherapy
  • Positioning the client in Trendelenburg
  • Administering oxygen

Question 11 of 50

What is the primary therapeutic use of furosemide as a loop diuretic?

  • To eliminate excess potassium
  • To promote diuresis of excess fluids
  • To bind to phosphate in food
  • To increase cardiac contractility Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1.

Question 12 of 50

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for hepatotoxicity when taking acetaminophen?

  • Exceeding the recommended dose
  • Use of herbal supplements
  • Taking acetaminophen with food
  • Concurrent use of NSAIDs

Question 13 of 50

What is a serious side effect of atorvastatin that a nurse should educate the client to monitor for?

  • Hyperglycemia
  • Alopecia
  • Hypertension
  • Myopathy

Question 14 of 50

What is a primary therapeutic use of quinidine?

  • Management of atrial fibrillation
  • Treatment of bacterial infections
  • Relief of muscle spasms
  • Treatment of asthma

Question 15 of 50

What is a critical nursing consideration when administering hydralazine intravenously for acute severe hypertensive episodes?

  • Frequent monitoring of blood pressure
  • Administering with food to reduce GI upset
  • Ensuring the patient is fasting
  • Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia

Question 16 of 50

Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of non-opioid analgesics like acetaminophen?

  • Increasing bone density in osteoarthritis
  • Treating severe acute pain conditions
  • Providing sedation in postoperative patients
  • Managing mild to moderate pain and reducing fever

Question 17 of 50

Which of the following is a key educational point for preventing constipation in patients taking opioid analgesics?

  • Use NSAIDs to counteract constipation.
  • Increase fiber intake and hydration.
  • Limit fluid intake to prevent retention.
  • Avoid fiber-rich foods.

Question 18 of 50

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of propranolol?

  • Treatment of fibromyalgia
  • Long-term control of asthma
  • Management of hypertension
  • Relief of muscle spasm

Question 19 of 50

Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a generic name from a brand name of a medication?

  • Each medication has multiple generic names.
  • Brand names are also known as proprietary names.
  • Generic names are assigned by the manufacturer.
  • Generic names are more expensive than brand names

Question 21 of 50

What is the primary mechanism of action of bile-acid sequestrants?

  • They increase the secretion of insulin from the pancreas.
  • They inhibit cholesterol synthesis in the liver.
  • They enhance the absorption of dietary fats.
  • They form insoluble complexes with bile acids in the intestine.

Question 22 of 50

Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional ‘rights’ of medication administration that nurses must follow to prevent medication errors?

  • Right medication
  • Right client
  • Right time
  • Right symptom

Question 23 of 50

Which of the following describes the ‘onset of action’ in medication administration?

  • The duration the medication maintains therapeutic effects.
  • The time it takes for the medication to be excreted from the body.
  • The time it takes for the medication to reach its therapeutic effect.
  • The period during which the medication is at its highest concentration.

Question 24 of 50

Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of allopurinol?

  • Short-term management of insomnia
  • Relief of burning with urination
  • Management of hyperuricemia in chronic gout
  • Treatment of fibromyalgia

Question 25 of 50

What is the primary mechanism of action of losartan?

  • It blocks angiotensin II receptors on blood vessels.
  • It inhibits the activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme.
  • It increases the release of norepinephrine.
  • It acts as a calcium channel blocker.

Question 26 of 50

What is the primary effect of beta blockers on the myocardium in the context of hypertension?

  • Increased release of renin
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased conduction through the AV node
  • Decreased myocardial contractility

Question 27 of 50

Which of the following is a common respiratory side effect of morphine that requires careful monitoring?

  • Hyperventilation
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Asthma exacerbation
  • Respiratory depression

Question 28 of 50

What important information should a nurse include when educating a client about the use of prednisone?

  • Prednisone should only be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption.
  • This medication can be used for long-term treatment of chronic conditions.
  • It is safe to stop taking prednisone abruptly if you feel better.
  • You may experience increased appetite and weight gain while taking this medication.

Question 29 of 50

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when administering tramadol to an older adult client?

  • Administer tramadol with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
  • Monitor the client for signs of respiratory depression.
  • Encourage the client to take tramadol on an empty stomach for better absorption.
  • Instruct the client to consume high-fiber foods to prevent constipation.

Question 30 of 50

Which of the following is a common side effect of furosemide that nurses should educate patients about?

  • Hypertension
  • Weight gain
  • Constipation
  • Increased urination

Question 31 of 50

What should a patient do if chest pain persists five minutes after taking the first nitroglycerin tablet?

  • Take two more tablets at once to relieve the pain.
  • Call 911 or get to an emergency department immediately.
  • Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second tablet.
  • Continue with daily activities to see if the pain subsides.

Question 32 of 50

What is the primary mechanism of action of naloxone in the context of opioid overdose?

  • It binds to opioid receptors to activate them.
  • It blocks the effects of opioids on the central nervous system.
  • It increases the metabolism of opioids.
  • It enhances opioid binding to receptors.

Question 33 of 50

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of naloxone administration?

  • Bronchospasm
  • Ventricular arrhythmias
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypertensive crisis

Question 34 of 50

What is a common gastrointestinal adverse effect of both ibuprofen and aspirin?

  • Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
  • Pancreatitis
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding
  • Hepatitis

Question 35 of 50

What should be the nurse’s first action when preparing to administer medications to a client?

  • Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
  • Perform hand hygiene and apply gloves.
  • Leave medications at the bedside if the client is not ready.
  • Check the client’s room number. Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1.

Question 36 of 50

Which route of medication administration provides the quickest onset of action? Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1

  • Transdermal
  • Oral
  • Inhalation
  • Intravenous

Question 37 of 50

What is the primary nursing action when administering lidocaine for ventricular dysrhythmias?

  • Encourage the patient to ambulate frequently.
  • Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
  • Administer an additional dose if dysrhythmias persist.
  • Provide continuous cardiac monitoring.

Question 38 of 50

Which route of administration is most affected by first-pass metabolism?

  • Oral
  • Inhalation
  • Intravenous
  • Intramuscular

Question 39 of 50

Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate to ensure safe medication administration for older adults?

  • Educate the client on the importance of taking medications with high-fat meals.
  • Encourage the client to self-manage their medications without assistance.
  • Adjust medication dosages based solely on the client’s weight.
  • Regularly review the client’s medication list for potential drug-drug interactions.

Question 40 of 50

What is an important instruction for a client beginning prednisone therapy?

  • Monitor for signs of fluid retention and report them to your healthcare provider.
  • Avoid taking prednisone with food.
  • Stop taking prednisone as soon as symptoms improve.
  • Discontinue prednisone if you experience increased appetite.

Question 41 of 50

Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?

  • Treatment of high blood pressure
  • Enhancing kidney filtration rate
  • Increasing heart rate
  • Treating acute infections

Question 42 of 50

Which of the following is a common side effect of atenolol?

  • Blurred vision
  • Increased appetite
  • Hair loss
  • Bradycardia

Question 43 of 50

A patient has been prescribed captopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that is a serious concern?

  • Hypokalemia
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Angioedema

Question 44 of 50

What is a primary nursing consideration when administering losartan to a patient with hypertension?

  • Monitor patient’s blood pressure regularly.
  • Ensure the patient remains sedentary for long periods.
  • Advise the patient to consume high potassium foods.
  • Encourage the patient to double the dose if a dose is missed.

Question 45 of 50

Which of the following is a significant risk associated with the use of ibuprofen and aspirin due to their antiplatelet effects? Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1.

  • Decreased risk of hypertension
  • Increased platelet production
  • Enhanced kidney function
  • Increased risk of GI bleeding

Question 46 of 50

What is the primary mechanism of action for opioid analgesics like morphine?

  • Bind to opioid receptors in the CNS
  • Inhibit serotonin reuptake in the CNS
  • Block calcium channels in the CNS
  • Increase neurotransmitter release in the CNS

Question 47 of 50

A nurse is educating a patient who has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide about preventing hypokalemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

  • Expect to experience increased muscle strength as a side effect.
  • Limit fluid intake to avoid swelling.
  • Incorporate potassium-rich foods such as bananas and spinach into your diet.
  • Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.

Question 48 of 50

Which of the following instructions should a nurse include when educating a patient about potential side effects of flecainide?

  • Notify your healthcare provider if you experience blurred vision, dizziness or palpitations.
  • Avoid physical exercise while on flecainide therapy.
  • Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
  • Increase potassium intake to counteract flecainide effects.

Question 49 of 50

Which of the following symptoms is a known side effect of spironolactone?

  • Hyperkalemia
  • Increased libido
  • Constipation
  • Hypotension Custom NURS 320 A Exam 1.

Question 50 of 50

What is the primary purpose of medication reconciliation in preventing medication errors?

  • To maintain an accurate and up-to-date list of all medications a client is taking.
  • To ensure that the client receives a new prescription.
  • To double the dosage of critical medications.
  • To substitute generic medications with brand names

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