ATI Custom: NUR 211 Midpoint Summer 1 2026

Question 4 of 40

A nurse is providing care for a client who experienced a myocardial infarction prior to a cardiac arrest. Which of the following laboratory tests will identify early injury to the cardiac muscle?

• Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test
• Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test
• Troponin T test
• Creatine kinase (CK) test

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Question 5 of 40

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• Dietary and fluid restrictions
• Encouraging increased mobility
• Cessation of hormonal supplements
• Cessation of intravenous (IV) drug use

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Question 6 of 40

A nurse in an emergency department is planning care for a client who is having an acute myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should plan to administer which of the following medications after the initial acute phase to manage the client’s pain and anxiety?

• Nitroglycerin
• Oxygen
• Aspirin
• Morphine

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Question 7 of 40

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions is the most common cause of ARDS?

• Sepsis
• Pneumonia
• Motor vehicle accident trauma
• Aspiration

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Question 8 of 40

A nurse is assessing a client with COPD and suspects the development of pneumonia. Which clinical cue should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider?

• Steady oxygen saturation levels despite exertion
• Afternoon fatigue resolving with rest
• Increased coughing and yellow sputum
• Slight headache relieved by over-the-counter medication

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Question 9 of 40

A nurse is educating a client about risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following client characteristics should the nurse identify as modifiable risk factors for CAD?

• Gender
• Family history of CAD
• Tobacco use
• Age

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Question 10 of 40

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took 3 nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now he is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? ATI Custom: NUR 211 Midpoint Summer 1 2026

• “A sudden headache is concerning and may require an emergent CT scan.”
• “A headache indicates intolerance to the medication.”
• “A headache is an expected adverse effect of the medication.”
• “A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain.”

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Question 11 of 40

A nurse is calculating the intravenous fluid (IVF) dosage for a client diagnosed with hypovolemic shock due to non-hemorrhagic fluid loss. The client weighs 70 kg. According to current guidelines, the nurse must administer a rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloids totaling 30 mL/kg. What is the correct total volume of fluid the nurse should plan to infuse?

• 2100 mL
• 700 mL
• 1500 mL
• 3000 mL

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Question 12 of 40

A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving heparin. Which of the following findings is the nurse’s priority?

• The client has an aPTT of 80 seconds.
• The client’s ECG tracing shows irregular heart rate without P waves.
• The client’s urine output is cloudy and odorous.
• The client experiences sudden weakness of one arm and leg.

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Question 13 of 40

A nurse is planning care for a client who has atrial fibrillation and reports heart palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• Diagnostic cardiac catheterization
• Pericardial window
• Pericardiocentesis
• Synchronized Electrical Cardioversion

Case Study Summary

A 74-year-old obese female with a history of hypertension, CAD, left ventricular hypertrophy, right-sided heart failure, and COPD presents with worsening shortness of breath. She was admitted earlier with a 4.5 kg weight gain over 4 days, 3+ pitting bilateral lower extremity edema, and fine bilateral basilar rales. Over the next hour, her condition deteriorated: respirations increased from 22 to 30/min, O₂ saturation dropped from 95% to 88%, coarse crackles developed throughout both lung fields, and bilateral JVD became present. She is cool, clammy, and pale with a temperature of 37.8°C.

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

Potential Condition

• Worsening of congestive heart failure
• Spontaneous pneumothorax
• Pneumonia
• Exacerbation of COPD

Actions to Take

• Elevate the head of the client’s bed
• Recommence a low-sodium diet with dietitian for the client
• Apply the pulse oximeter
• Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV
• Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer hourly

Parameters to Monitor

• WBC count
• Temperature
• Arterial blood gases
• Oxygen saturation
• Respiratory rate

Question 15

A nurse is planning care for a client with COPD who is experiencing an acute exacerbation. What priority intervention should the nurse implement to improve gas exchange?

• Increasing fluid intake to thin secretions
• Providing a high-calorie, high-protein diet
• Administering bronchodilators as ordered
• Encouraging ambulation to promote lung expansion

Question 16 of 40

A nurse is providing care for a client experiencing obstructive shock. Which of the following diagnoses should the nurse expect?

• Ruptured aneurysm
• Cardiac tamponade
• Third spacing
• Cardiomyopathy
• Cardiac tamponade

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Question 17 of 40

A nurse is educating a client with COPD about smoking cessation. Which strategy should the nurse use to maximize the client’s success?

• Encouraging participation in a support group for smokers looking to quit
• Advising the client to cut down slowly before quitting abruptly
• Using scare tactics to emphasize the dangers of smoking
• Recommending nicotine replacement therapy without discussing behavior changes
• Encouraging participation in a support group for smokers looking to quit

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Question 18 of 40

A nurse is assessing a client who has a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which of the following is an early manifestation of an AAA?

• Presence of Cullen’s Sign
• Lower back or groin pain
• Hunger after eating
• Pain in the chest
• Lower back or groin pain

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Question 19 of 40

Which of the following is the most common risk factor for emphysema?

• Asthma
• Pollution
• Occupational exposure
• Smoking tobacco
• Smoking tobacco

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Question 20 of 40

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• Jugular distention
• Dependent edema
• Frothy sputum
• Nocturnal polyuria
• Frothy sputum

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Question 21 of 40

Which of the following are the most common manifestations of COPD? (Select all that apply.)

• Chronic cough
• Sputum production
• Dyspnea
• Nausea
• Chest pain
• Chronic cough
• Sputum production
• Dyspnea

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Question 22 of 40

A nurse is assessing a toddler who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• Orthopnea
• Increased urine output
• Bradycardia
• Weight loss
• Orthopnea

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Question 23 of 40

A nurse is providing instruction to a new nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

• Metolazone
• Spironolactone
• Hydrochlorothiazide
• Furosemide
• Spironolactone

Question 24 of 40

A nurse is caring for a client with asthma. Which of the following happens physiologically when bronchospasm occurs?

• Weakness of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
• Inflammation is reduced due to airway diameter
• Bronchospasm occurs when there is inflammation, edema, and excess mucus
• Destruction of alveolar walls contributes to airway constriction
• Bronchospasm occurs when there is inflammation, edema, and excess mucus

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Question 25 of 40

A nurse is providing care for a group of clients who have coronary artery disease who are all scheduled for coronary artery bypass grafts (CABG). Which of the following clients is at the highest risk for complications following the surgical procedure?

• A client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
• A client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• A client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and Bell’s palsy
• A client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and chronic allergies ATI Custom: NUR 211 Midpoint Summer 1 2026
• A client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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Question 26 of 40

A nurse is educating a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the education?

• Any size of a pulmonary embolism is fatal
• There is an increased risk of bleeding
• Rest when experiencing symptoms of a pulmonary embolism
• Follow-up is not needed
• There is an increased risk of bleeding

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Question 27 of 40

A critical care nurse finds a postoperative client unresponsive and calls for a code blue. Which of the following next actions should the nurse take?

• Retrieve the crash cart
• Apply a bag valve mask and provide ventilation
• Attach an automatic external defibrillator (AED)
• Begin chest compressions
• Apply a bag valve mask and provide ventilation

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Question 28 of 40

A nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who lost 700 mL of blood during surgery. The client’s blood pressure gradually decreases in recovery. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of the client’s hypotension?

• Hypovolemic shock
• Fluid volume overload
• Pulmonary embolism
• Obstructive shock
• Hypovolemic shock

Question 29 of 40

A nurse is planning care for an adolescent who was admitted from the emergency department.

Nurses’ Notes 0600: Client admitted for unstable respiratory status. Alert and oriented. Caregiver reports child having a fever as high as 39.88° C (103.8° F) for past 3 days with severe fatigue, chills, productive, harsh cough, and dyspnea with exertion. No nausea/vomiting or diarrhea. Reports no weight loss, night sweats, or recent travel. Breath sounds diminished bilateral lower lobes with crackles in the upper lobes.

Diagnostic Results 0630: Sputum culture and sensitivity: negative for bacteria Chest radiograph (x-ray): consolidation noted bilaterally WBC count 12,300/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)

Vital Signs 0600: Temperature 39.05° C (102.3° F) Heart rate 101/min Respiratory rate 23/min Blood pressure 98/57 mm Hg Oxygen saturation 92% room air

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Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

Actions to Take

• Maintain airborne precautions
• Restrain client and provide incentive spirometry ATI Custom: NUR 211 Midpoint Summer 1 2026
• Obtain a peak expiratory flow rate
• Administer prescribed antipyretics
• Cluster client care to allow for rest

Potential Condition

• Cystic fibrosis
• Tuberculosis
• Viral pneumonia
• Asthma

Parameters to Monitor

• Blood glucose levels
• Level of fatigue
• Oxygen saturation levels
• Diet high in protein and calcium
• Allergen triggers

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• Potential Condition: Viral pneumonia
• Action to Take 1: Administer prescribed antipyretics
• Action to Take 2: Cluster client care to allow for rest
• Parameter to Monitor 1: Oxygen saturation levels
• Parameter to Monitor 2: Level of fatigue

Question 34

When evaluating a COPD client’s readiness for discharge, what factor should the nurse assess to determine the client’s ability to self-manage the condition?

• Awareness of community support groups.
• Knowledge of nutritious meals for weight loss.
• The ability to perform pursed-lip breathing independently.
• Understanding medication doses without external help.

Question 35

Which of the following are risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)? (Select all that apply.)

• Diabetes mellitus
• Total cholesterol 170 mg/dL (less than 200 mg /dL
• HDL cholesterol 65 mg/dL (male greater than 45 mg/dL; female greater than 55 mg/dL)
• Smoking cigarettes
• Family history of aneurysm

Question 36

The nurse is preparing the client for the cardiac catheterization. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

• Obtain informed consent for the procedure.
• Obtain the client’s vital signs.
• Encourage the client to drink plenty of water before the procedure to prevent kidney damage from the contrast dye used.
• Confirm the client’s allergies.
• Keep the client NPO.
• Shave and clean the client’s chest and both legs in preparation for the procedure.
• Mark the procedural site.

Question 37

A client is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin for acute chest pain. The order reads: nitroglycerin at 5 mcg/min, titrate by 2 mcg/min every 5 minutes to a maximum of 20 mcg/min. The infusion solution contains 50 mg of nitroglycerin in 250 mL D5W. The client weighs 80 kg. After starting the infusion at 5 mcg/min, the client’s blood pressure drops to 90/60 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next regarding the nitroglycerin infusion?

• Decrease the infusion rate to 3 mcg/min and notify the provider about hypotension.
• Increase the infusion rate by 2 mcg/min as ordered to achieve therapeutic effect.
• Stop the infusion immediately and prepare to administer IV fluids. ATI Custom: NUR 211 Midpoint Summer 1 2026
• Maintain the infusion rate at 5 mcg/min and monitor vital signs closely.

Question 38

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following blood test results should the nurse understand can be a possible cause of atrial fibrillation?

• Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
• Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
• Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Question 39

A nurse is caring for a client who has an elevated potassium level and is on a cardiac monitor. The nurse is aware that hyperkalemia may be associated with changes to the T-wave. On the graphic, point and click on the area of the electrocardiogram (ECG) that represents the T-wave.

• [The T-wave is the area selected on the far right of the ECG complex in files 8b6e846b-b094-4dbf-82d9-e47c32cbc85f and 9b41f658-e31a-4557-83ba-e779049307df]

Question 40

A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease. For each potential provider’s prescription, click to specify if the prescription is a priority or non-priority for the client.

• Captopril 12.5 mg PO TID: Non-Priority
• Aspirin 160 mg PO STAT: Priority
• Prepare for cardiac catheterization: Priority
• Atenolol 50 mg PO BID: Non-Priority
• Morphine 8 mg IV STAT: Priority
• Prepare for percutaneous coronary intervention: Priority